The infinite product of cosines ∏(k=1 to ∞) cos(x/2^k) equals sin(x)/x, which can be proven by taking the natural logarithm to convert the product into a sum, differentiating to obtain a telescoping series using the identity cot(θ) - tan(θ) = cot(2θ), and integrating back to recover the original function; this identity simplifies the integral of x times the infinite product to just the integral of sin(x), yielding the exact value 1 - √2/2 when evaluated from 0 to π/4.
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The Infinite Cosine Trap (MIT Integration Bee)追加:
Here's a question that stomped many students at one of the most competitive math tournaments in the world. The MIT integration B.
We need to evaluate this integral X times an infinite product of cosiness integrated from 0 to pi / 4.
Before we touch a single symbol of algebra here, I want to ask a different question first.
What does this function actually look like? Let's graph it step by step. The first partial product x * cosine of x / 2. Well, it looks like a gentle wave.
Now multiply by cosine of x / 4. The curve shifts slightly.
Now cossine of x / 8. Getting smoother.
um more familiar somehow.
Keep going. Cosine of x / 16 over 32.
Wait, is that just sign? Yes.
The infinite product of cosiness is drawing the exact graph of sin x.
That's the mystery we're going to unravel today. And the answer is more beautiful than you'd expect.
So why does the infinite product of equal sin x /x?
Let's prove it rigorously.
First a key principle that guides this whole approach.
Products are hard and sums are easier.
The natural log turns products into sums. And that's the entire motivation for what we're about to do. Let u of x be the infinite product. Our integral becomes x * u of x.
Now take the integral the natural log of both sides.
And watch the product symbol transforms into a summation.
We now have log u equals sum of log cosine of x / 2 to the k.
Now differentiate both sides with respect to x.
The left side gives u prime over u. On the right chain rule gives us sin /x * 1 / 2 k for each term.
That's negative tangent of x / 2 the k / 2 the k. So u prime / u equals negative the sum of 1 / 2 the k* tangent of x / 2 to the 2 to the k.
This still looks complicated but we have a secret weapon.
So here's the key identity.
Canent theta minus tangent theta equals to quotangent of 2 theta.
I want you to hold this in your mind because we're about to use it to collapse an infinite sum down to almost nothing.
Rearranging negative tangent theta equ= 2 can 2 theta minus canent theta.
Substitute theta equ= x / 2 to the k into every term.
Each piece of our infinite sum becomes a difference of two cangent expressions.
Now write out the first four terms.
Term one quotent x shown in gold minus 12 cangent x / 2 shown in orange.
term 2 plus 12 cangent x / 2 orange again minus4 cangent x / 4 purple term free plus 14 cangent x / 4 purple minus 18 can x over 8 blue.
So, do you see it?
The orange terms cancel, the purple terms cancel, the blue terms cancel one by one like dominoes falling.
All that survives is the very first term quotangent x and the limit of the final term as k goes to infinity.
Now what is that limit 1 / 2 to the k* cent of x / 2 to the k as k goes to infinity.
Here's the key insight.
As k grows x / 2 to the k shrinks toward zero.
And for very small angles can theta is approximately 1 / theta.
So our expression becomes 1 / 2 k * 2 k /x which is simply 1 /x.
Therefore, u prime / u equ= cent x - 1 / 8.
Now integrate both sides.
The integral of cangent x is log sin x.
The integral of 1 /x is log x.
So log u equ= log sin x - log x + a constant.
So we exponentiate u = c * sin x /x.
We find z using the behavior near zero.
So as x approaches zero, every cosine term approaches 1. So u approaches 1.
And sin x /x also approaches 1 at x= 0.
Therefore c = 1. And we have proved it.
The infinite product of cosiness equals sin /x.
Now we bring every everything together.
Our original integral x * the infinite product becomes x * sin /x sin x /x.
Watch the x in the numerator and the x in denominator.
They cancel. And just like that, our monstrous infinite product integral collapses into the integral of sin x from 0 to pi over 4. All that machinery, all that algebra now reduced to one line.
The anti-derivative of sin x is negative cosine x. So evaluating from 0 to p<unk> / 4 cosine of p<unk> / 4 = cosine of 0 cosine of<unk> /x is <unk>2 / 2 cosine of 0 is 1. So our final answer 1 - <unk>2 / 2 approximately 0.293 293.
And there is it. There. There it is.
The exact area under sin x from 0 to pi /4. And that is the same shaded region we showed at the very beginning. The graph told us the answer before we even started.
And the algebra, we just use it to confirm it. That's the beauty of math.
If you enjoyed this, subscribe and there's plenty more of beautiful Matt Journey on the way.
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