AIBE - XXI Model Paper - 23

Added: 2026-05-30

[00:00:01]Under the Indian Evidence Act 1872, dying declaration was made admissible by which section?

[00:00:11]Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 especially clause one, made dying declarations admissible as relevant facts where statement is made by a person as to the cause of his death or as to the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death.

[00:00:34]Section 32 B is the right choice.

[00:00:41]Under the Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005, daughters are coparceners by birth. D is the right choice.

[00:00:55]Because the Hindu Succession Amendment Act 2005 amended section six to confer upon daughters equal coparcenary rights by birth in joint Hindu family property as confirmed in Vineeta Sharma versus Rakesh Sharma 2020.

[00:01:25]The procedure for summary suits applicable to negotiable instruments is contained in which order?

[00:01:36]Order 37 of the CPC provides a special summary procedure for suits on bills of exchange hundis, promissory notes and other written contracts for liquidated demands enabling speedy disposal without giving the defendant a right to defend as of course.

[00:02:02]C.

[00:02:06]Which article of the constitution provides for the abolition of untouchability?

[00:02:13]Article 17 of the constitution abolishes untouchability in all its forms and forbids its practice making it enforcement in any form making its enforcement in any form an offense punishable in accordance with the law.

[00:02:47]The rule of absolute liability in Indian tort law was evolved by the Supreme Court in M.C. Mehta versus Union of India oleum gas leak.

[00:03:07]In S.C. Mehta versus Union of India the Supreme Court evolved the rule of absolute liability for enterprises engaged in hazardous activities dispensing with exceptions to the strict liability rule in Rylands versus Fletcher.

[00:03:26]An advocate found guilty of professional misconduct may be punished by Bar Council with a reprimand, suspension, or removal from rolls.

[00:03:43]Section 35 (3) of the Advocates Act 1961 empowers the disciplinary committee of of Council after finding a professional misconduct to dismiss the complaint reprimand the advocate suspend him from practice or remove his his name from the state rolls.

[00:04:09]Delegated legislation um is subject to which form of judicial control?

[00:04:21]Doctrine of ultra vires.

[00:04:49]The code on wages 2019 consolidates and replaces how many earlier labor enactments on wages?

[00:04:58]Four. The code on wages 2019 consolidates and rationalizes four central enactments the payment of wages act 1936 the minimum wages act 1948 the payment of bonus act 1965 and the equal remuneration act 1976.

[00:05:21]Answer A.

[00:05:30]Under order one rule 10 of the CPC the court may strike out or add parties at any stage of the proceedings. D is the right choice.

[00:05:49]Order one rule 10 of the CPC empowers the court at any stage of the proceedings and either and either an application or an application or suo moto on application or suo moto to strike out the name of the party.

[00:06:16]Confessions made to a police officer are inadmissible under the BSA 2023.

[00:06:22]This rule appears in section 23 which expressly renders confessions made to a police officer inadmissible against an accused.

[00:06:43]>> [snorts] >> A restitution of conjugal rights under the Hindu Marriage Act is provided under which section?

[00:07:00]Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 enables either spouse to apply to district court for restitution of conjugal rights when the other has without reasonable excuse withdrawn society of the petitioner.

[00:07:20]Section 9, C is the right choice.

[00:07:36]Which IPC section corresponded to the offense of theft now found in BNS section 303.

[00:07:48]Section [clears throat] 303 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 deals with the offense and punishment of theft corresponding directly to the definition of theft in section 378 of IPC.

[00:08:13]RP seeks divorce from Rajesh on the ground of cruelty after persistent harassment for dowry.

[00:08:21]The relevant ground under section 13 HMA is cruelty.

[00:08:28]Section 13 1 IA of the Hindu Marriage Act expressly recognizes cruelty either mental or physical by either spouse as a ground for divorce.

[00:08:52]An order of injunction granted ex parte under the CPC is governed by which order?

[00:09:05]Order 39 of the CPC comprising rule 1 to 5 governs the grant of temporary injunctions including ex parte injunctions under rule 3 by a civil court to preserve the subject matter of the suit and to restrain injurious conduct pending adjudication.

[00:09:27]Order 39.

[00:09:34]The principle no man shall be a judge in his own cause refers to which rule of natural justice?

[00:09:46]Nemo judex in causa sua.

[00:09:49]No one shall be a judge in his own cause is a rule against bias under natural justice requiring decision-makers to be impartial and free from personal interest in the cause before them.

[00:10:05]A is the correct choice.

[00:10:14]Which section of BNS 2023 deals with the offense of cheating replacing section 420 of the IPC?

[00:10:26]Section 318 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 is the recodified provision dealing with cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property.

[00:10:41]It replaces section 420 of IPC.

[00:10:55]Under the Copyright Act 1957 the term of copyright in literary works generally subsists for lifetime of author plus 60 years.

[00:11:12]Section 22 of the Copyright Act 1957 provides that copyright in a literary, dramatic, musical, or other artistic work published within the lifetime of the author subsists during the author's lifetime and 60 years thereafter.

[00:11:38]>> Public interest litigation in India derives its constitutional foundation chiefly from which articles?

[00:11:51]Articles 32 and 226.

[00:11:58]>> [groaning] [groaning] >> Under section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, a mere right to sue is not transferable.

[00:12:36]Section 6E of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 expressly declares that a mere right to sue cannot be transferred.

[00:12:48]>> [clears throat] [groaning] >> Which of the following is not a fundamental duty under Article 51A?

[00:13:07]To pay taxes honestly.

[00:13:16]Article 51A lists 11 fundamental duties such as protecting the environment, respecting the national flag and anthem, safeguarding public property and etc. But honest payment of taxes is not among them.

[00:13:38]Under the Muslim personal law, Sharia Application Act 1937 succession among Muslims is governed by Muslim personal law.

[00:13:59]C is the correct choice.

[00:14:10]>> [snorts] >> Under the BNSS 2023 information of a cognizable offense to the police is registered under which section?

[00:14:29]Section 173 of the BNSS 2023 governs the registration of information relating to a cognizable offense.

[00:14:42]It corresponds to section 154 of CRPC.

[00:14:59]The maximum volenti non fit injuria means to a willing person no injury is done.

[00:15:12]Volenti non fit injuria literally translates to to one who consents no injury is done.

[00:15:22]And operates as a complete defense in tort where the claimant freely consented to the risk.

[00:15:33]To a willing person, no injury is done.

[00:15:41]Under Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, damages awarded for breach are Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 qualifies the ruling Hadley and Baxendale entitling the aggrieved party to compensation for loss naturally arising in the usual course of things from the breach or such as the parties knew at the time of contracting would be likely to would be likely to result.

[00:16:24]D.

[00:16:26]Which statement on Sapinda relationship under Hindu Marriage Act 1955 is correct?

[00:16:38]Section 3F of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 defines Sapinda relationship as extending up to the third generation through the mother and the fifth generation through the father, both inclusive of the person concerned.

[00:17:01]Under the Income Tax Act 1961, income from house property is taxed under which head?

[00:17:13]Sections 22 to 27 of the Income Tax Act 1961 from the chapter on income from house property laying down on the basis of charge computation of annual value, deductions, and special situations relevant to this head of income.

[00:17:44]The BNS rules on professional standards of the of the Advocates Act under the Advocates Act are framed under which section?

[00:17:56]Section 49.

[00:17:58]One C of the Advocates Act 1961 empowers the Bar Council of India to make rules prescribing the standards of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates which are qualified in part six, chapter two of the BCA rules.

[00:18:25]An admission under the BSA 2023 is a statement which suggests an inference as to any fact in issue a relevant fact.

[00:18:42]Section 15 defines an admission as a statement oral or documentary or contained in electronic form which suggests only inference as to any fact in issue a relevant fact.

[00:19:03]Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 which section provides the the punishment for murder.

[00:19:14]Section 103.

[00:19:17]Section 103 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 prescribes the punishment for the offense of murder.

[00:19:26]Replicating the substance of section 302 of the IPC 1860.

[00:19:46]Which section of the BNSS 2023 deals with the power of a magistrate to order investigation?

[00:19:57]Section 175 of the BNSS 2023 corresponds to section 156 of the CRPC and subsection 3 empowers a magistrate to order police investigation into a cognizable offense when an aggrieved person's FIR is not registered or there is police inaction.

[00:20:26]>> [snorts] >> Under the Information Technology Act 2000 identity theft is dealt with under which section?

[00:20:40]Section 66C of the Information Technology Act specifically punishes identity theft.

[00:20:49]That is fraudulent or dishonest use of another's electronic signature password or any other unique identification feature.

[00:21:01]C is the right choice.

[00:21:05]Under the IPC 1860, what was the punishment for criminal conspiracy under Section 120B for a non-capital offense?

[00:21:20]Same punishment as that for the offense conspired.

[00:21:47]Under the Companies Act 2013, the maximum number of direct Sorry, the minimum number of directors for a public company is three. Section 149 1A of the Companies Act 2013 mandates a minimum of three director directors for a public company, two for a private company, and one for a one-person company.

[00:22:16]Three, choice D is the right choice.

[00:22:29]Under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, the minimum age of marriage for the bridegroom is 21 years.

[00:22:39]Section 5(3) of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 prescribes the minimum age of 21 years for the bridegroom and 18 years for the bride at the time of marriage.

[00:23:05]>> [groaning] >> Recording of statements by audio video electronic means is permitted under which section of the BNSS?

[00:23:19]Section 183.

[00:23:23]Section 183 of the BNSS governs the recording of confessions and statements by a magistrate during investigation and expressly permits the recording to be done by audio video electronic means corresponding to the modernized section of 164 of CRPC.

[00:23:44]Section 183.

[00:23:49]Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, the number of arbitrators must be an odd number. Section 10 (1) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 leaves the number of arbitrators to be agreed upon agreed upon by the parties provided that such number shall not be an even number. So, the number of arbitrators must be odd.

[00:24:30]Under which section of the CPC is the doctrine of res judicata codified?

[00:24:46]Section 11 of the CPC codifies the doctrine of res judicata.

[00:24:56]It bars courts from trying any suit or issue that has or issue that has been finally decided between the same parties by a competent court.

[00:25:11]Under which article of the Constitution of India is the right to constitutional remedies guaranteed?

[00:25:19]Article 32, which Dr. Ambedkar called the heart and soul of the Constitution, guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court the enforcement of fundamental rights through writs.

[00:25:52]Inherent powers of a civil court are preserved under which section of the CPC?

[00:26:03]Section 151 of the CPC saves the inherent powers of the civil courts to make sure such orders to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of process of the court.

[00:26:23]Section 151 B is the right choice.

[00:26:37]Under section 125 of the CRPC 1973 maintenance can be claimed by which of the following?

[00:26:48]B, wife, children, and Under which wife, legitimate or illegitimate minor child, major child unable to maintain itself by reasons of physical or mental infirmity and a and aged or infirm parents.

[00:27:16]Which writ literally means to have the body and is issued against unlawful detention?

[00:27:24]Habeas corpus.

[00:27:29]41 B.

[00:27:41]>> [groaning] >> The new offense of snatching is defined and made punishable under which section of the BNS 2023?

[00:28:07]Section 304.

[00:28:10]Section 304 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023 comes out snatching as a distinct newly codified offense.

[00:28:34]Under the Indian Contract Act 1872 an agreement without consideration is with exceptions void.

[00:28:48]Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act 1872 declares that an agreement without consideration is void.

[00:28:59]Save for specific exceptions of natural love and affection between near relations, past voluntary services, and a promise to pay a time barred debt.

[00:29:15]Soham registers Fit Life as a trademark for fitness wear. A new entrant uses Fit Life for protein supplements.

[00:29:26]The likely infringement question turns on likelihood of confusion across related goods.

[00:29:38]A is the right choice.

[00:29:54]The rule of strict liability was laid down in which landmark English case?

[00:30:06]Rylands versus Fletcher.

[00:30:09]The rule in Rylands versus Fletcher 1868 first established strict liability.

[00:30:36]Under the 2013 Land Acquisition Act, social impact assessment is required to be conducted under section 7 of the right to fair compensation and transparency in land acquisition act 2013 which provides for the conduct of social impact assessment study and consultation with Gram Sabha and panchayats in the affected area after the preliminary notification.

[00:31:19]Section 9 of the code of civil procedure 1908 deals with Section 9 of the CPC mandates that civil courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of of a civil nature unless their cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred by statute.

[00:31:44]So B is the right choice.

[00:31:57]Under article 21 the expression procedure established by law was read to mean fair procedure in which case in Maneka Gandhi versus Union of India 1978 the Supreme Court overruled the narrow construction in AK Gopalan and held that procedure established by law under article 21 must be just fair and reasonable effectively reading due process into the constitution.

[00:32:40]>> The seat of arbitration determines which of the following?

[00:32:50]Following Bharat Aluminum Co. versus Kaiser Aluminum Balco to 2012 and Union of India versus Hardy Exploration the seat of arbitration determines which courts will have supervisory jurisdiction over the arbitration exercising power of appointment, interim relief, and challenge to the award.

[00:33:22]An anticipatory bail under the CRPC 1973 was provided under which section?

[00:33:29]Section 438 of the code of criminal procedure 1973 was the provision governing anticipatory bail empowering the High Court or Court of Session to grant bail to a person apprehending arrest on acquisition of a non-bailable offense.

[00:33:49]Section 438 B is the correct choice.

[00:34:00]The directive principles of state policy are contained in which part of the Constitution?

[00:34:09]Part four. Part four of the Constitution articles 36 to 51 contains the directive principles of state policy which though non-justiciable, are fundamental in the governance of the country.

[00:34:26]Part four, D, is the right choice.

[00:34:41]>> A first appeal from an original decree lies under which section of the CPC?

[00:34:48]Section 96 of the CPC 1908 confers the substantial right of the first appeal from every original decree passed by a court exercising original jurisdiction.

[00:35:04]So, section 96 of the CPC C is the correct choice.

[00:35:21]Under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, claims for compensation arising from accidents are filed before Section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 establishes Motor Accidents Claims Tribunals, which have exclusive jurisdiction to adjudicate claims for compensation arising from the motor act from motor accidents. So, B is the right choice.

[00:35:52]Motor Accident Claims Tribunal.

[00:36:02]Under the Transfer of Property Act 1882, the doctrine of part performance is contained in Section 53A of the TP Act 1882 embodies the doctrine of part performance, protecting a transferee in possession under a written but unregistered contract of transfer from being dispossessed by the transferor.

[00:36:36]Section 53A.

[00:36:43]The previous year under the Income Tax Act 1961 generally refers to the financial year immediately preceding the assessment year.

[00:36:57]So, section 3 of the Income Tax Act 1961 defines previous year as the financial year April 1st to March 31st immediately preceding the assessment year.

[00:37:23]An arbitral award may be set aside on grounds enumerated under which section of the 19 96 Act?

[00:37:34]Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 sets out the limited grounds and procedure for challenging and setting aside a domestic arbitral award.

[00:37:49]Section 34A is the right choice.

[00:38:04]Which article empowers the Parliament to legislate on state list subjects in the national interest?

[00:38:15]Article [snorts] 249.

[00:38:19]Empowers Parliament to legislate on any matter in the state list if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3 majority declaring it expedient in the national interest.

[00:38:34]Article 249.

[00:38:45]The doctrine of legitimate expectation in Indian administrative law was not a fully affirmed in Union of India versus Hindustan Development Corporation.

[00:39:02]The Supreme Court formally recognized and elaborated the doctrine of legitimate expectation as a facet of natural justice and judicial review of administrative action.

[00:39:15]So, A is the correct choice.

[00:39:27]Under the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, gratuity becomes payable after continuous service of 5 years.

[00:39:38]According to section 41 of the Payment of Gratuity Act uh 1972, gratuity is payable to an employee on termination of employment after he has rendered continuous service of not less than 5 years with carved out exceptions for death and disablement.

[00:40:00]So, under normal circumstances, 5 years.

[00:40:06]Section 89 of the CPC encourages reference of disputes to which of the following?

[00:40:16]Section 89 of the CPC inserted by the 1999 amendment requires the court where elements of a settlement exist to refer the dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat or mediation.

[00:40:36]So, B is the right choice.

[00:40:47]A non-cognizable offense under the CRPC requires what?

[00:40:54]For the police in this police to investigate.

[00:40:59]An order from magistrate. Section 155 two of the CRPC 1973 expressly bars the police from investigating a non-cognizable offense >> [snorts] >> without the order of a competent magistrate.

[00:41:14]In contrast with cognizable offenses where the police may investigate without any such order.

[00:41:30]In which case did the Supreme Court propound the doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution?

[00:41:39]The basic structure doctrine was first propounded by a 13-judge bench in Kesavananda Bharati versus State of Kerala which held that Parliament's amending power under Article 368 does not extend to altering the basic structure of the Constitution.

[00:42:11]The National Green Tribunal was established under which act?

[00:42:18]The National Green Tribunal NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 to provide effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and construction of conservation of forest and other natural resources.

[00:42:50]Section 89 of the CPC inserted in 2002 relates to Section 89 of the CPC inserted by the CPC Amendment Act 1999 with effective from 2002 requires the court where elements of settlement exist to refer the dispute to arbitration, conciliation, judicial settlement including Lok Adalat or mediation. That is, settlement of disputes outside the court.

[00:43:31]An appeal from an order of the State Bar Council in disciplinary proceedings lies to the Bar Council of India.

[00:43:39]Section 37 of the Advocates Act 1961 provides for an appeal to the Bar Council of India against any order passed by the disciplinary committee of a State Bar Council in matters of professional misconduct.

[00:44:10]>> The doctrine of locus standi was relaxed for PIL by the Supreme Court principally in S.P. Gupta versus Union of India.

[00:44:23]In S.P. Gupta versus Union of India 1981, popularly known as the Judges Transfer Case, Justice Bhagwati relaxed the traditional rule of locus standi allowing any person acting bonafide and having sufficient interest to maintain a PIL for the enforcement of public rights.

[00:44:45]C is the correct choice.

[00:44:50]Under the GST regime, IGST is levied on which type of supplies?

[00:44:58]Section 5 of the IGST Act 2017 read with Article 269A of the Constitution provides that Integrated GST is levied on every inter-state supply of goods or services with the proceeds proportioned between the center apportioned between the center and the destination state.

[00:45:25]So, inter-state supplies.

[00:45:27]A is the right choice.

[00:45:32]Under the IT Act 2000, publishing obscene material in electronic form is punishable under Article 60 Section 67.

[00:45:44]Section 67 of the Information Technology Act 2000 makes punishable the publishing or transmitting in electronic form of any material which is lascivious or appeals to be appeals to the prurient interests or tends to dis- deprave and corrupt persons likely to read, see, or hear it.

[00:46:14]The 42nd constitutional amendment in 1976 inserted which words into the preamble?

[00:46:26]Socialist and secular.

[00:46:30]A is the correct choice.

[00:46:35]The Constitution 42nd Amendment Act 1976, often called the mini constitution, inserted the words socialist and secular into the preamble along with and integrity.

[00:46:59]Under the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, dishonor of check for insufficiency of funds is dealt with under section 138.

[00:47:13]Which specifically criminalizes dishonor of a check on account of insufficiency of funds or because it exceeds the amount arranged to be paid, treating it as a quasi ju- quasi criminal offense.

[00:47:35]Admissibility of electronic records under the BSA 2023 is principally dealt with under which section?

[00:47:47]Section 63 of BSA 2023 reproduces with refinements the regime earlier contained in section 65B of the Evidence Act 1872 regarding admissibility of electronic records including the requirement of an accompanying certificate.

[00:48:09]So 63 of BSA 2023.

[00:48:15]Rajesh in anger fractures Sunil's arm with an iron rod disabling it for weeks.

[00:48:23]Which offense is made out?

[00:48:28]Fracture of a bone and continued disability for several weeks fall within the definition of grievous hurt under the BNS.

[00:48:37]The intentional infliction of such injury is punishable as voluntarily causing grievous hurt under section 117 of the BNS 2023.

[00:48:56]Under the PSA 2023, facts of which the court must take judicial notice are listed under >> [groaning] >> section 52 of the BSA 2023 uh corresponding to section 57 of the old Evidence Act enumerates the facts of which the court must take judicial notice such as Indian laws, treaties, public seals, courses courses of a proceeding, and territorial divisions of India.

[00:49:36]A second appeal under section 100 of the CPC lies on the ground of substantial question of law.

[00:49:48]D is a correct choice.

[00:50:17]Under the Industrial Disputes Act, the appropriate forum to adjudicate industrial disputes is Labor Court or Industrial Tribunal.

[00:50:35]Section 7 of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 provides for constitution of Labor Courts, Section 7A for Industrial Tribunals, and Section 7B for National Tribunals.

[00:50:50]Which together form the adjudicatory hierarchy for industrial disputes?

[00:51:01]In which case did the Supreme Court evolve guidelines on sexual harassment at the workplace through PIL?

[00:51:14]In Vishaka versus State of Rajasthan 1997, the Supreme Court, exercising its jurisdiction under Article 32, laid down binding guidelines for the prevention of sexual harassment of women at the workplace pending parliamentary legislation. So, it's a service.

[00:51:36]>> [snorts] >> Under the Specific Relief Act 1963, specific performance of contract is governed by which section?

[00:51:49]Section 10 of the Specific Relief Act 1963 as substituted by the 2018 Amendment makes specific performance of contracts the general rule enforceable by the court subject only to the limited exceptions in section 11 two and 14 of the Act.

[00:52:16]>> [groaning] >> Under Article 356 the President's rule in a state can initially be imposed for what maximum period?

[00:52:31]Article 356 four provides that a proclamation of President's rule after parliamentary approval remains in force for six months at a time extendable up to a maximum of three years on prescribed conditions.

[00:52:49]Choice D is the correct choice.

[00:53:01]Under the BNS 2023 the offense of organized crime is dealt with under which section?

[00:53:11]Section 1 1 1 of the BNS 2023 introduces organized crime as a distinct codified offense in general criminal law for the first time.

[00:53:28]>> [snorts] >> An offer when accepted becomes a promise.

[00:53:51]Section 2B of the Indian Contract Act 1872 provides that when the person to whom a proposal is made signifies his assent there to, the proposal is said to be accepted. A proposal when accepted becomes a promise. A promise plus consideration in turn becomes a contract.

[00:54:22]Under the Consumer Protection Act 2019, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the District Commission extends up to Following the 2021 notification under the Consumer Protection Act 2019, the original pecuniary jurisdiction of the District Commission was retained at up to 1 crore, a position which the question takes as the marked answer.

[00:55:07]The doctrine of lifting the corporate veil allows the court to disregard separate legal personality in case of fraud.

[00:55:30]C.

[00:55:55]>> The doctrine of res gestae under the Indian Evidence Act 1872 was contained in section six.

[00:56:10]Facts of forming part of the same transaction as a fact in issue are themselves relevant even though they may not be the fact in issue.

[00:56:24]Maintenance to a Muslim divorced woman is governed by which act?

[00:56:31]Muslim woman Protection of Rights on Divorce Act 1986.

[00:57:03]The polluter pays principle formally established in Indian law by the Supreme Court in Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum versus Union of India 1996.

[00:57:18]The Supreme Court formally incorporated the polluter pays and precautionary principles into Indian environmental jurisprudence under Article 21, 47, 48 A, and 51 A G, D is the right choice. Well known Citizens Welfare Forum versus Union of India.

[00:57:46]Under the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, retrenchment is defined under which section?

[00:57:56]Section 2 O O of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 defines retrenchment as the termination by the employer of the services of a workman for any reason whatsoever otherwise than as punishment by the way of disciplinary action >> [snorts] >> with carved out exceptions.

[00:58:26]Under the BNS 2023, a terrorist act is defined and made punishable under which section?

[00:58:37]Section 113 of the BNS 2023 codifies the offense of terrorist act within general criminal law for the first time mirroring the substance of corresponding UAPA provisions.

[00:58:55]>> [groaning] >> C is the right choice.

[00:59:06]Tax deducted at source TDS under the Income Tax Act is dealt with under which chapter?

[00:59:18]Chapter 17th Chapter 17th of the Income Tax Act 1961 comprising sections 190 onwards contains the detailed provisions on collection and recovery of tax including tax directed at source TDS and tax collected at source TCS.

[00:59:50]Under the BNSS 2023 the time bound delivery of judgement after conclusion of argument is 45 days. Section 392 of the BNSS 2023 requires the judgement in every trial to be pronounced pronounced within 30 days of the completion of arguments extendable up to 45 days.

[01:00:19]For recorded reasons introducing a fresh statutory timeline absent in the old CRPC.

[01:00:33]Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam BSA 2023 evidence includes which of the following?

[01:00:47]Oral and documentary including electronic records.

[01:00:54]Section 21E of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 defines evidence to include all statements which the court for permits.

[01:01:10]Under the Special Marriage Act 1954 notice of in notice of intended marriage must be given to the marriage officer.

[01:01:24]At least 30 days in advance.

[01:01:27]Choice B is a right choice.

[01:01:50]The BNS is 2023 permits trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender under which provision?

[01:02:01]Section 356 of the BNS is 2023 is a new provision that expressly permits trial in absentia of a proclaimed offender who has absconded and there is no immediate prospect of arresting him after compliance with prescribed safeguards.

[01:02:30]The principal act governing land acquisition in India today is a right to fair compensation and transparency in land acquisition Act 2013.

[01:02:49]Is the principal act governing land acquisition by government in India today.

[01:03:11]An advocate is forbidden under BCA rules from accepting a brief in a case where he has a personal interest conflicting with the clients.

[01:03:28]Rule 12 of part six, chapter two of the BCA rules prohibits an advocate from accepting a brief in any matter in which his personal interest, monetary or otherwise, conflicts with interest of the client.

[01:03:51]Sale of immovable property of value rupees 100 or more under section 54, transfer of property act, can be made only by registered instrument.

[01:04:10]A is the right choice.

[01:04:31]The pecuniary pecuniary jurisdiction of a civil court is determined primarily by value of subject matter of suit.

[01:04:44]Pecuniary jurisdiction of a civil court is determined by the value of the subject matter of the suit, essentially the value of the claim or relief as assessed in accordance with the Suits Valuation Act, 1887, and the relevant state enactments establishing civil courts.

[01:05:13]Under the BNSS 2023, the maximum period of police custody for serious offenses may extend up to 60 days.

[01:05:26]In 80 or in section 187 of the BNSS 2023 permits police custody to the to be granted in fragments up to 60 days within the first 90 days of the total detention for offenses punishable with death, life imprisonment, or imprisonment of 10 years or more.

[01:05:53]Under the BSA 2023, the burden of proof in a criminal trial generally lies to lies on the prosecution.

[01:06:13]C is the right choice.

[01:06:34]Under the BNSS 2023, the period of completing investigation in offenses punishable up to 10 years is 60 days.

[01:06:50]Section 193 of the BNSS 2023 requires investigation to be completed and a final report charge sheet filed within 60 days for offenses punishable up to 10 years imprisonment with a longer outer limit for even graver offenses.

[01:07:15]Which of the following is not a recognized category for PIL in Indian jurisprudence?

[01:07:27]PIL is meant to address public public injuries and grievances of those who cannot themselves approach the courts.

[01:07:36]Purely private contractual disputes between two parties involve only their individual rights and lack the element of public interest that is the very foundation of PIL. So, D is the right choice.